Did God sanction polygamy?

It would seem that in the Old Testament God sanctioned polygamy. Not so. Jesus said that in the beginning “the two shall become one flesh” (Matt. 19:4,5). He did not say “the fifteen shall become one flesh.” God gave Israel kings, but that was His permissivenot Hisperfect will. Polygamy is in the same category.

2 Chronicles 13:21 But Abijah grew mighty, married fourteen wives, and begot twenty-two sons and sixteen daughters.

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5 Responses to Did God sanction polygamy?

  1. Robert says:

    *It would seem that in the Old Testament God sanctioned polygamy.*
    I sure wish you had fleshed this out Mr.Comfort. This looks to be a statement not unlike when the atheist confesses there is an “appearance of design”. Of course that’s because there’s tons of evidence for God’s existence in the form of design. Symmetry, DNA, function…you know the arguments

    “Biology is the study of complicated things that give the appearance of having been designed for a purpose.” {Richard Dawkins, The Blind Watchmaker, 1996, p. 1}

    So why does it “seem that God sanctioned polygamy”?

    Is it because of all the men and women engaged in polygamy within the pages of the Bible, without a single word of condemnation? Is that why?

    Was it because many of them were men of God, such as Abraham, Jacob, and Moses?

    Is it because God regulated polygamy in His Law, such as forbidding a king from taking a great many wives? (Deuteronomy 17:17)

    Is it because God said that He would have given David even more wives? ( 2 Samuel 12:8)

    Is it because God twice presents himself as a metaphorical polygamists? (Ezekiel 23, Jeremiah 3:6-11)

    Is it simply that lions and sheep are polygamists, while wolves in that region are monogamous?

    So you are right Mr. Comfort “it would seem God condones polygamy”. There’s certainly many reasons to believe that.

    * Not so.*
    Of course that’s just an assertion, not an argument.

    *Jesus said that in the beginning “the two shall become one flesh” (Matt. 19:4,5). He did not say “the fifteen shall become one flesh.”*

    This text in Matthew is contextually about divorce, not polygamy. Things God “did not say” is an argument from silence, a fallacy.

    *God gave Israel kings, but that was His permissive not His perfect will. Polygamy is in the same category.*

    That just begs the question you’re trying to prove. It doesn’t advance your position. There simply is no general monogamy mandate in the Bible.

    You haven’t done your due diligence on this issue. How about you explore both sides of the issue before reaching a conclusion?

    I’m a little disappointed.

  2. cnystrom62 says:

    “the two shall become one flesh” – Polygamist also believe that marriage is between one man and one woman. The thing is it does not say that a man can only do this with one person. Women are prohibited from this (Romans 7:2 and 1 Cor 7:39). “the fifteen shall become one flesh.” – This would be group marriage, not polygamy and polygamists are against this as well. The wives are not married to each other. When the husband dies the wives are free to marry other men. They are not obligated to stay together. 1 Cor 6:16 blows up the idea that you can only be one flesh with one woman at a time.

  3. cnystrom62 says:

    “Polygamy is in the same category.” – This is simply your opinion. You did not give any evidence for it.

  4. cnystrom62 says:

    The Bible word for polygamy is … “marriage”. The Bible (and God) makes no distinction. We only think of polygamy as something different than marriage because our Western Civilization culture.

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